Common Registration Assessment · 2026
GPhC Exam Questions: Practice the 2026 Registration Assessment
Two papers. 40 calculations and 120 multiple-choice questions. Calculator allowed in both. Below: how the assessment is structured, worked sample questions in every format, and the weak areas the Board of Assessors flagged after the June 2025 sitting.
What the GPhC registration assessment actually is
The Common Registration Assessment (CRA), still widely called the GPhC exam, is the national assessment trainee pharmacists in the UK must pass before joining the register. It is set by the General Pharmaceutical Council’s Board of Assessors, delivered on the Surpass platform at Pearson VUE test centres, and sat on a single day.
The assessment has two parts. Part 1 contains 40 pharmacy and healthcare calculations with numerical free-entry answers, sat in two hours. Part 2 contains 120 multiple-choice questions sat in two and a half hours, divided into 90 Single Best Answer (SBA) questions in Section 1 and 30 Extended Matching (EMQ) questions in Section 2 (delivered as 15 sets of two questions sharing eight options). A calculator is permitted in both parts, either an onscreen calculator or a physical model from the GPhC’s permitted-items list.
Every question is mapped to a learning outcome in the CRA framework for 2026. Outcomes are weighted high, medium or low. In the June 2025 sitting, 67.1% of questions mapped to high-weighted outcomes and 27.1% to medium-weighted outcomes — roughly 94% of available marks concentrated in those two bands. That weighting drives how you should allocate study time.
The three question formats, with a worked sample of each
The samples below are CRA-style practice questions, not real exam questions. The Board of Assessors explicitly does not endorse third-party question banks — treat all practice material, including ours, as scaffolding for the framework.
Single Best Answer (SBA)
A clinical scenario followed by five answer options. More than one option may be defensible — your task is to choose the single best answer. SBAs make up three-quarters of Part 2 and reward applied therapeutic judgement under time pressure.
A clinical pharmacist is reviewing Mr O'Brien, a 57-year-old male with co-existing AF on warfarin (target INR 2.0-3.0), frequent INR fluctuations, and CKD stage 3. Current medications include metformin 1 g BD, gliclazide 80 mg BD, ramipril 5 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON. HbA1c 72 mmol/mol. Fasting glucose 12.4. eGFR 45. ACR 8 mg/mmol. In the context of this clinical picture, a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is interested in lifestyle interventions to manage their condition. Which of the following recommendations is NOT appropriate?
- A. Engage in 150 minutes of moderate exercise weekly
- B. Follow a low-carbohydrate diet
- C. Limit alcohol intake to one drink per day
- D. Take a daily multivitamin
- E. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
Show worked answer
Correct answer: D
Extended Matching (EMQ)
A theme, a list of up to eight options, and two related questions that share those options. Any option may be used once, more than once, or not at all across the set. EMQs are heavier on differential reasoning — you are picking the best fit from a list, not from a fresh menu each time.
Step-wise Management of Asthma
- A. SABA as needed
- B. Low-dose ICS
- C. Add LABA to existing ICS
- D. High-dose ICS + LABA
- E. Add LTRA
- F. Consider tiotropium
- G. Systemic corticosteroids
- H. Biologic therapy
- I. None of the above
Show worked answer
Correct answer: [{"stem": "A patient with occasional asthma symptoms, using their SABA inhaler more than twice a week.", "correct_answer": "B"}, {"stem": "An asthma patient not well controlled on a low-dose ICS, experiencing nightly symptoms.", "correct_answer": "C"}, {"stem": "A patient with severe asthma not controlled on high-dose ICS + LABA, with FEV1 <80% predicted.", "correct_answer": "H"}]
Calculations
Free-entry numerical answers. Dose calculations, infusion rates, displacement values, paediatric dosing, weight-based regimens and rounding judgement. The Board of Assessors has flagged calculation rounding as a persistent weak area — specifically the choice of when to round (per dose vs at the end), and whether to round up or down based on the dosage form.
A 62 kg patient with an eGFR of 8 mL/min/1.73m² is prescribed amikacin at 15 mg/kg once daily. The BNF recommends a maximum single dose of 1500 mg and the following renal dose adjustments: eGFR 0-14 mL/min/1.73m²: reduce to 25% of normal dose. Amikacin injection is available as 50 mg/mL in 2 mL vials. What is the correct amikacin dose for this patient?
- A. 232.5 mg
- B. 465 mg
- C. 58.12 mg
- D. 77.42 mg
- E. 2325 mg
Show worked answer
Correct answer: A
Three more calculation samples
Work through these with a calculator in hand. Each one mirrors a recurring Part 1 pattern: a weight-based dose with a cap or renal adjustment, an infusion-rate problem, and a paediatric scenario where BNFC limits matter.
A patient is started on pregabalin for generalised anxiety disorder using the following titration schedule: 75 mg twice daily for 7 days; 150 mg twice daily for 7 days; 300 mg twice daily for 14 days. Pregabalin is available as 75 mg tablets. Tablets come in packs of 56. How many packs should be dispensed for the primary drug?
- A. 30 pack(s) of 56
- B. 1 pack(s) of 56
- C. 1.5 pack(s) of 56
- D. 4.5 pack(s) of 56
- E. 3 pack(s) of 56
Show worked answer
Correct answer: E
Calculate the osmolarity of 5% dextrose solution. (Molecular weight of glucose = 180)
- A. 556 mOsmol/L
- B. 139.0 mOsmol/L
- C. 278 mOsmol/L
- D. 417.0 mOsmol/L
- E. 208.5 mOsmol/L
Show worked answer
Correct answer: C
A 105 kg patient has a serum sodium of 122 mmol/L. The target is to correct to 128 mmol/L. Sodium deficit = 0.6 × weight (kg) × (target Na - current Na). 3% NaCl contains 513 mmol/L of sodium. The maximum correction rate is 10 mmol/L per 24 hours. Calculate the sodium deficit in mmol.
- A. 415.8 mmol
- B. 378 mmol
- C. 1512 mmol
- D. 567 mmol
- E. 340.2 mmol
Show worked answer
Correct answer: B
What the GPhC actually tests — the Board of Assessors’ weak areas
After every sitting, the Board of Assessors publishes feedback naming the topics where performance was lowest. The list below is drawn directly from the June 2025 feedback document. If you are revising and want to bias your time toward the things the GPhC has explicitly told you candidates fail on, this is the list.
Part 1 — calculation pitfalls
- Rounding at the wrong stage. Sometimes you round at the end; sometimes you round each individual dose before totalling supply. The Board notes candidates routinely apply the wrong rule.
- Round up vs round down. Especially for oral liquids supplied with a syringe — you must round to a graduation mark on the syringe provided, not to a theoretical decimal place.
- Dosage-form constraints. A patient cannot take part of a capsule. Ampoules are single-use. The Board flags these as recurring miss-points.
- Displacement volumes when reconstituting powder injections.
- IV infusion rate calculations, including the remaining-volume safety check used to confirm an infusion is being delivered correctly.
- IV bolus vs IV infusion. The administration method changes the calculation.
Part 2 — clinical weak areas
From the same June 2025 feedback, these are the topics where Part 2 performance was lowest:
- Emergency supply conditions and prescription-validity checks
- Safe, legal and effective medicines disposal
- Medical emergencies in the pharmacy, including first aid
- Common skin conditions, including presentation across diverse skin tones
- Minor ailments management and safety-netting
- Cardiovascular therapeutics: heart failure, stable angina, antiplatelets, lipid-modifying therapy
- Primary and secondary cardiovascular prevention
- Interpreting investigation results and optimising treatment when out of range
- Antimicrobial stewardship, cancer screening, smoking cessation, vaccination
- MHRA/CHM safety advice and medicines use in intercurrent illness
- Anticholinergic burden and inappropriate-medication review
- Contraception and reproductive healthcare drug interactions
- Menopause symptom management (vasomotor, urogenital)
- Insulin preparations, time-action profiles, blood glucose interpretation
- Asthma management (acute, chronic, stepping up and stepping down) and COPD inhaled therapies
For a structured way to cover these without burning out, see the 12-week GPhC study plan and the focused calculations practice section. Topic-by-topic breakdowns sit on dedicated pages — see cardiovascular, emergency supply, calculation rounding, and asthma and COPD. If you have already sat and not passed, the GPhC resit guide is built specifically for diagnosing what went wrong and rebuilding for the next sitting.
How the pass mark is set
There is no fixed pass mark. After every sitting, the Board of Assessors sets the passing standard using a modified Angoff methodology with the addition of one standard error of measurement, and maintains it across sittings using Item Response Theory. The headline consequence: the cut score shifts to reflect the relative difficulty of the questions you sat — no candidate is disadvantaged by sitting a harder paper.
For the most recent published sitting (June 2025), Part 1 passed at 24/40 (84% of candidates achieved it) and Part 2 passed at 79/120 (86% of candidates achieved it). No predetermined proportion of candidates is set to pass or fail — only candidates who meet the standard pass.
2026 sitting dates
- June 2026 sitting: Tuesday 16 June 2026. Results released 21 July 2026.
- November 2026 sitting: date not yet confirmed by the GPhC at the time of writing. The reasonable-adjustment application deadline is 5pm on Thursday 6 August 2026.
- Reasonable adjustments — June 2026: applications close 5pm on Monday 23 February 2026.
Always cross-check current sitting dates against the GPhC’s official sitting page before booking travel.
GPhC exam questions — frequently asked
How many questions are in the GPhC exam?
The Common Registration Assessment has 160 questions in total, split across two papers. Part 1 is 40 free-entry numerical calculations sat in two hours. Part 2 is 120 multiple-choice questions sat in two and a half hours, split into 90 Single Best Answer questions (Section 1) and 30 Extended Matching questions delivered as 15 sets of two (Section 2).
What is the pass mark for the GPhC exam?
There is no fixed pass mark. The Board of Assessors sets it after each sitting using modified Angoff standard-setting plus one standard error of measurement, maintained via Item Response Theory. In the June 2025 sitting the published pass marks were 24/40 for Part 1 and 79/120 for Part 2, with 84% and 86% of candidates achieving those marks respectively.
Can I use a calculator in the GPhC exam?
Yes. A calculator is permitted in both Part 1 and Part 2. You can either use the onscreen calculator built into the Surpass test platform or bring a physical calculator from the GPhC-specified list. Models not on the permitted list are not allowed in the test centre.
What is the difference between SBA and EMQ questions?
A Single Best Answer question gives you a clinical scenario and five answer options. More than one option may be defensible, but only one is the single best answer. An Extended Matching question gives you a theme and a longer list of eight options shared across a set of two related questions. Any option may be used once, more than once, or not at all across the set.
How many attempts do I get at the GPhC exam?
Each trainee pharmacist has three attempts at the Common Registration Assessment within the period set out in the GPhC regulations. If you have used all three attempts without passing, additional study and reapplication routes are detailed in the GPhC’s guidance for unsuccessful trainees.
When is the next GPhC exam sitting in 2026?
The June 2026 sitting is on Tuesday 16 June 2026, with results released on 21 July 2026. A November 2026 sitting is also planned; the GPhC publishes the exact date closer to the time. The reasonable-adjustment application deadline for the November 2026 sitting is 5pm on Thursday 6 August 2026.
What topics come up most often in the GPhC exam?
Every question is mapped to a learning outcome in the CRA framework, weighted high, medium or low. In June 2025, 67.1% of questions came from high-weighted outcomes and 27.1% from medium-weighted outcomes — meaning roughly 94% of marks are concentrated in those two bands. Prioritising high-weighted outcomes is the single most efficient way to allocate study time.
Is the GPhC exam hard?
It tests applied judgement on real patient scenarios, not memorised facts, which makes it different from most undergraduate exams. The June 2025 pass rates of 84% (Part 1) and 86% (Part 2) suggest well-prepared candidates pass, but the Board of Assessors’ published feedback notes recurring weaknesses in calculation rounding, cardiovascular therapeutics, emergency supply, and inhaler management.
Where is the GPhC exam delivered?
The assessment is computer-based, delivered via the Surpass test platform at Pearson VUE test centres across the UK. You sit both parts on the same day. The platform provides an onscreen calculator, navigation between questions within a section, and a question-flag feature for review.
What references should I use to prepare?
The CRA framework is the only document that tells you what is actually in scope. Beyond that, the British National Formulary (BNF), the BNF for Children (BNFC), and the Royal Pharmaceutical Society’s Medicines, Ethics and Practice (MEP) are the standard references used by trainees. The Board of Assessors does not endorse any commercial question bank, so treat all third-party material — including this site — as practice scaffolding, not exam content.
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